A.
B.
C.pnD.pn-1在线课程C分析:由(1-p)Sn=p-pan得(1-p)Sn+1=p-pan+1两式相减得an+1=pan,又把n=1代入(1-p)Sn=p-pan得(1-p)a1=p-pa1,解得a1=p,故数列是以p为首项,p为公比的等比数列,由等比数列的通项公式可求答案.
解答:∵对任意n∈N*(1-p)Sn=p-pan,①
∴(1-p)Sn+1=p-pan+1②
②-①得,∴(1-p)an+1=-pan+1+pan
即an+1=pan,,把n=1代入(1-p)Sn=p-pan得(1-p)a1=p-pa1,解得a1=p
故数列{an}是以p为首项,p为公比的等比数列.(p为大于1的常数)
故数列的通项公式为an=p×pn-1=pn,
故选C.
点评:本题为数列通项公式的求解,通过题意得出数列是以p为首项,p为公比的等比数列是解决问题的关键,属中档题.